Soph was pointing out that they're hearing and seeing a lot of people using the pronoun "I" instead of "me" in situations like, "They gave it to Mary and I." Which is, from a prescriptivist perspective, wrong!
Just clarifying whether I've understood correctly: would "Mary and I went to the park" and "They gave it to Mary and me" be correct? Because I remember learning as a child that I shouldn't write "my mother and me" but instead "my mother and I" but I'm trying to remember the form of the rest of those sentences. Because I think, which of these is correct depends on the structure of the rest of the sentence, right?
But this is only a now thought. I've thought, all this time, that "this person and me" is the grammatically wrong but far more common usage than "this person and I" :O
no subject
Just clarifying whether I've understood correctly: would "Mary and I went to the park" and "They gave it to Mary and me" be correct? Because I remember learning as a child that I shouldn't write "my mother and me" but instead "my mother and I" but I'm trying to remember the form of the rest of those sentences. Because I think, which of these is correct depends on the structure of the rest of the sentence, right?
But this is only a now thought. I've thought, all this time, that "this person and me" is the grammatically wrong but far more common usage than "this person and I" :O